Re: Why is this so?
Re: Why is this so?
- Subject: Re: Why is this so?
- From: Christopher Nebel <email@hidden>
- Date: Wed, 24 Jan 2001 10:55:43 -0800
On Wednesday, January 24, 2001, at 09:35 AM, Michelle Steiner wrote:
On 1/23/01 11:59 AM, Bill Briggs <email@hidden> wrote
yeah, I know; I think it should work the other way, though. :)
Why? All you did was specify the boundary conditions for the text
range. Do you think that this should be enough to invoke an implicit
"invert string" operation?
Because the script provides a direction.
"1 through 4" and "4 through 1" are not the same to me.
We had an internal discussion about this a while back. I don't entirely
disagree with you, but there are two major problems. First, there's no
precedent for it -- the only thing in AppleScript problem is that there
are a lot of cases where it's ambiguous what order the endpoints are
really in.