What a strange conversation. Different inversions of the same chords have different acoustic properties; for one thing, they imply different melodies. To say that one is more "proper" than another seems rather odd without further context than "all western classical piano music".
H
Please excuse the brevity -- sent from my iPad
On 1 Dec 2010, at 18:12, Morgan Packard < email@hidden> wrote: It would be more "proper" to move between the two chords in such a way as to minimize the distance the hand moves. Instead of going from
C E G to G B D
You'd go from
C E G to B D G
"Horrible" is a strong word for how the first voicing would sound. But it's certainly a little more graceful and classically correct-sounding to do something like the second voicing.
On Wed, Dec 1, 2010 at 11:05 AM, Rob Ross <email@hidden> wrote:
On Nov 30, 2010, at 9:41 PM, Pi wrote:
>
>
> The difficulty I face is how to voice the chords... if I just do {C4 E4 G4} for the C major chord, and {G4 B5 D5} for G, etc, it is going to sound horrible
>
> A pianist simply doesn't move from C to G like that. There is an art to voicing, so that each note attempts to move a minimal distance to its new resolution.
>
I'm curious why you think this chord progression will sound "horrible." Is this just what you *think* it will sound like or do you have an actual subjective experience with this progression? I just played this on my piano and it sounds fine to me.
In fact, playing these two chords in succession suggests a tonic in C, and so you have a I-V progression, one of the most common in Western music.
So again, I'm curious why you think this is going to sound horrible?
Rob _______________________________________________
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