Re: [OT] Re: jmlbeud ceararhtcs
Re: [OT] Re: jmlbeud ceararhtcs
- Subject: Re: [OT] Re: jmlbeud ceararhtcs
- From: Gnarlodious <email@hidden>
- Date: Sun, 21 Sep 2003 12:37:40 -0600
Entity Bill Briggs spoke thus:
>
Interestingly enough, the original text of the portions of the bible
>
that were written in Hebrew were written with no vowels, no word
>
breaks, no sentence breaks, and no verse breaks.
Not exactly. The word "so" and "then" served as sentence breaks and
continuity breaks, that is why the Old Testament has so many.
>
And apparently, though I don't read 2000 year old Hebrew,
>
it was readable. Anyone on the list who knows more of this can expand
>
on it, but from what I've read that's the case.
True. Except that Semitic languages were designed to have vowels as
modifiers so the "root" meaning of the word always remains the same
regardless of the vowels used, so it's a different cognitive process
altogether.
For example the infinitive always has the form XeXeX and the noun has the
form XoXeX and the verb has the form XaXeX, etc.
Hope that makes sense.
--Gnarlie
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