Re: Newbie questions
Re: Newbie questions
- Subject: Re: Newbie questions
- From: Hamish Allan <email@hidden>
- Date: Sun, 5 Apr 2009 21:28:39 +0100
On Sun, Apr 5, 2009 at 6:56 PM, Brian Willoughby <email@hidden> wrote:
> Even though music can
> theoretically be transformed into a series of sine waves that repeat to
> infinity, inverting the polarity of a piece of music is not going to shift
> each frequency by a certain number of degrees.
Would it not give you the exact same result as performing a perfect
Fourier decomposition, phase-shifting each frequency by 180 degrees,
and recomposing?
FWIW, I agree with you that it's not "a phase operation" -- it could
be viewed as an infinite sum of phase operations, but why look at it
that way, when you could just look at it as a polarity operation?
Hamish
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