Re: Newbie questions
Re: Newbie questions
- Subject: Re: Newbie questions
- From: tahome izwah <email@hidden>
- Date: Mon, 6 Apr 2009 08:14:33 +0200
You wouldn't even have to use a Fourier transform, you could simply
apply two Hilbert filters in series. Yes, that would result in a
polarity inversion and a 180 degree phase shift at any frequency
(within the passband of the filter).
You could argue that a 180 degree phase shift isn't the same as a
polarity inversion because you're also introducing a delay, but other
than that I don't see why a 180 degree phase shift would not be the
same as inverting polarity.
--th
2009/4/5 Hamish Allan <email@hidden>:
> On Sun, Apr 5, 2009 at 6:56 PM, Brian Willoughby <email@hidden> wrote:
>
>> Even though music can
>> theoretically be transformed into a series of sine waves that repeat to
>> infinity, inverting the polarity of a piece of music is not going to shift
>> each frequency by a certain number of degrees.
>
> Would it not give you the exact same result as performing a perfect
> Fourier decomposition, phase-shifting each frequency by 180 degrees,
> and recomposing?
>
> FWIW, I agree with you that it's not "a phase operation" -- it could
> be viewed as an infinite sum of phase operations, but why look at it
> that way, when you could just look at it as a polarity operation?
>
> Hamish
>
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